UPSC IAS / IPS — MCQ Practice Questions & Answers

Question 1

Which of the following ideals is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: C. Dignity — This question asks which fundamental ideal is absent from the explicit text of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, along with sovereignty and secularism. Among the given options, "Dignity" is notably absent from the original language of the Preamble, though it has become an important constitutional principle through judicial interpretation and amendments. Sovereignty, Secularism, and Liberty are all directly stated in the Preamble ("We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Democratic Republic"), whereas Dignity, though a core constitutional value, is not explicitly written in the Preamble's text itself. The correct answer is (C) Dignity, as it is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

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A. Sovereignty

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B. Secularism

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D. Liberty

Question 2

Right to Property was removed from the category of Fundamental Rights and made a Constitutional Right by which amendment?

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: B. 44th Amendment — This question asks about a specific constitutional amendment that changed the status of the Right to Property in the Indian Constitution. The Right to Property was originally listed as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) of the Indian Constitution. However, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed this right from Part III (Fundamental Rights) and relocated it to Part XII-B as a Constitutional Right under Article 300-A. This amendment was passed during the Emergency period and significantly altered the constitutional framework regarding property rights in India. The 44th Amendment is historically significant as it made property rights subject to state regulation while retaining them as a constitutional guarantee, thereby reducing their fundamental status. The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights and made it a Constitutional Right.

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A. 42nd Amendment

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C. 45th Amendment

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D. 50th Amendment

Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): 1. DPSP are enforceable through courts 2. DPSP provide guidance for legislation and administration 3. DPSP take precedence over Fundamental Rights 4. DPSP aim to establish a welfare state Which stateme

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: B. 2 and 4 — This question tests knowledge of the fundamental characteristics and nature of Directive Principles of State Policy under the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles of State Policy are non-enforceable constitutional provisions that guide the state in framing laws and policies to achieve social and economic justice. Let me analyze each statement: Statement 1: DPSP are enforceable through courts — This is INCORRECT. DPSP are explicitly non-justiciable, meaning courts cannot enforce them directly. Article 37 of the Constitution clearly states that no court can order their enforcement. However, courts can use them as interpretive aids while deciding cases involving Fundamental Rights. Statement 2: DPSP provide guidance for legislation and administration — This is CORRECT. The primary purpose of DPSP is to guide the state in making laws and implementing policies. Article 37 mandates that while DPSP are not enforceable by courts, they are fundamental in governance and must inform legislative and administrative decisions. Statement 3: DPSP take precedence

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A. 1 and 3

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C. 1, 2 and 4

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D. All of the above

Question 4

The power to approve the resignation of a Minister lies with:

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: B. President of India — This question asks about the constitutional authority responsible for accepting a Minister's resignation in India. The power to approve the resignation of a Minister lies with the President of India because Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President as per Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution. While a Minister typically submits their resignation to the Prime Minister, the formal acceptance and approval of that resignation is a constitutional power vested with the President. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has no role in this matter, the Prime Minister can only recommend but cannot formally accept resignations, and the Chief Justice of India has no constitutional authority over executive appointments or resignations. The correct answer is (B) President of India, as the President is the constitutional authority empowered to approve ministerial resignations under Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution.

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A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

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C. Prime Minister

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D. Chief Justice of India

Question 5

Which of the following powers can be exercised by the President of India independently without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers?

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: D. discretionary powers — # Presidential Powers Under the Indian Constitution The President of India has certain powers that can be exercised independently, while most executive powers require the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers as per Article 74. **Step 1: Understanding Constitutional Framework** Article 74 of the Indian Constitution mandates that the President shall exercise executive functions on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. However, Article 143 and other provisions recognize certain discretionary powers vested solely with the President. 	ext{Presidential Powers} = 	ext{Cabinet-advised Powers} + 	ext{Discretionary Powers} **Step 2: Analyzing Each Option** - **(A) Appointment of PM**: Must follow the principle that the PM commands majority in Lok Sabha—requires constitutional convention guidance. - **(B) Granting pardons/reprieves**: Exercised on advice of the Union Cabinet (Article 72). - **(C) Appointment of judges**: Made on advice of the Union Cabinet and Chief Justice of India (Article 124). - **(D)

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A. Appointment of Prime Minister

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B. Granting pardons and reprieves

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C. Appointment of judges of Supreme Court

Question 6

The 73rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution primarily relates to:

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: B. Devolution of powers to rural local governments — This question asks about the primary focus of the 73rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution. The 73rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution, enacted in 1992, was a landmark legislation that fundamentally restructured rural governance in India by establishing a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj institutions and devolving significant powers, functions, and finances from the state to these grassroots democratic bodies. This amendment recognized Panchayats as institutions of self-governance and ensured democratic participation at the village level through regular elections and reserved seats for women and scheduled castes/tribes. Option (B) is correct because the entire objective of the 73rd Amendment was to empower rural local governments by transferring administrative and financial responsibilities closer to the people, whereas options (A), (C), and (D) relate to different constitutional matters—State Election Commissions, parliamentary reservations, and political party regulations respectively. The 73rd Amendment to

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A. Establishment of State Election Commission

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C. Reservation of seats in Parliament

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D. Regulation of political parties

Question 7

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the President's power to declare a National Emergency?

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: A. Article 352 — This question asks about which constitutional article grants the President the power to declare a National Emergency in India. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to declare a National Emergency when the security of India or any part of it is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is the primary emergency provision that allows the President to proclaim a state of national emergency, which subsequently enables the Central Government to assume extraordinary powers. The other options refer to different types of emergencies: Article 356 deals with President's Rule in states, Article 360 addresses Financial Emergency, and Article 368 concerns the amendment procedure of the Constitution. The correct answer is (A) Article 352.

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B. Article 356

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C. Article 360

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D. Article 368

Question 8

Consider the following regarding the Supreme Court of India: 1. It has original jurisdiction in cases between Union and States 2. It can issue writs in the nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto 3. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the Preside

Accepted Answer

Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 — This question tests knowledge of the jurisdiction, powers, and appointment procedures of the Supreme Court of India as per the Constitution. Statement 1: Original jurisdiction in cases between Union and States - CORRECT Article 131 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and States, or between States themselves. This is a fundamental constitutional power. Statement 2: Power to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto) - CORRECT Article 32 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights. These five writs—Habeas Corpus (against unlawful detention), Mandamus (to compel performance of duty), Prohibition (to restrain lower courts), Certiorari (to quash orders), and Quo Warranto (to challenge authority)—are all recognized writs that the Supreme Court can issue. Statement 3: Chief Justice appointed by President on recommendation of outgoing Chief Justice - INCORRECT The Chief Justice of India is appoi

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A. 1, 2 and 3

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B. 2, 3 and 4

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D. All of the above

UPSC IAS / IPS - MCQ Practice Questions